Even if they were segregated, the losses would be charged to the bank and then to the accounts proportionally

NO they would not... its obvious youre just making stuff up now. As the cites clearly showed you, "meaningful segregation" isnt neccessary. The standard of law is identifiability. Simply saying something is true, and that the courts "routinely" do it, without citation, is nonsense.

Also im pretty sure you think the word fungible means something it doesn't.

You don't like the way the law works, and thats fine. but that doesnt mean it doesnt work that way.