Yes I understand that the band gap is the difference between the uplink and downlink within the same band, but my question is actually regarding two different bands, i.e. band 1 and band 2. Does the principle of band gaps still apply between bands? I am not sure it does because in band 15, the uplink is 1900 -1920 while the uplink for band 1 is 1920-1980. so there obviously seems to be some continuation there. I just don't understand why the sequence went from band 15 to band 1. Anyway, I was just curious and had to satisfy my left brain lol. Good advice though.
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The frequency spectrum allocation is not done sequentially, the governing body (ITU) sometimes allocate the spectrum after others are created. They just look for a spectrum with less number of activities. So it does not really follow any particular sequence.
Oh interesting. Thanks for the info.