Interesting, I need to dig deeper into this topic now, my initial response was Acts 10: 9-16. Peter says in Acts 10:24 28 He said to them: “You are well aware that it is against our law for a Jew to associate with or visit a Gentile. But God has shown me that I should not call anyone impure or unclean. But as you mentioned this was a tradition of the Jews, God did not forbid association with Gentiles. However my question is why would God use such a vision in the first place? Wouldn't it cause confusion if its not allowed, would seem like God is sort of setting his Children up for failure which I know He does not do.
Thanks for the post, following!
First let me say you are a truth seeker and that is refreshing to me as many will not let go of assumptions as you have and stand on the facts in the word. Now obviously I cant speak for the Father on why He chose this method but i think He chose this method because He knew how serious of an offense this would be to eat something unclean and as you can see Peter was against doing so. I think 5he Fathee knew Peter would battle it until he figured it out but he didnt have to wait long because the "unclean men" according to mans tradition at that time were on there way to find Peter. Now with the "unclean men" testimoney to Peter it was clear to him what his own vision meant. Keep reading and Peter tells to an assembly of Jews what his vision meant. But i give you props because most people assume that Jews not being able to assemble with gentles was law from God and now God is changing his own law which would make all of His laws now breakable but God is not a man that He should studder or sway back and forth with His words He says it today and it is forever True. Thank you so much for stopping by it was a real pleasure!