"The means of production" is such an arbitrarily defined term that it has no value. I own a computer for personal use, but let's say I'm working on one of my film projects. I've hired a friend of mine to do the sound design and he uses my computer to do the work. I'm paying him for his services (like the evil capitalist exploiter that I am) and my computer has now become the means of production. Does he have the right to seize it? If not, how often would he need to use my computer while under my employ before it becomes his right to take it away from me?
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Except you're using a computer for a monetary reason just by participating on this site, so doesn't your demonstrated preference betray your claim?
private property is different from personal property look it up it's basic lmao
And I just gave you a scenario that challenges those arbitrary definitions. Do you have an answer?
I do know the definition and in my scenario the computer is owned by me but laboured on by somebody else. My question is, at what point do they have the right to lay claim to it? Is it only if I don't use it at all? Or do they simply need to use it more than me? And for how long a period?
personal property is property labored on by one and owned by somebody else personal property is stuff you use.
You did not challenge them because you did not know the definition. Please try to learn about something before you debate it.
"personal property is property labored on by one and owned by somebody else personal property is stuff you use."
I certainly don't accept your convoluted and made up definition. Personal = private